Feb 4, 2018 · The integral of 0 is C, because the derivative of C is zero. Also, it makes sense logically if you recall the fact that the derivative of the function is the function's slope, because any function f …

Answers to the question of the integral of $\frac {1} {x}$ are all based on an implicit assumption that the upper and lower limits of the integral are both positive real numbers.

@user599310, I am going to attempt some pseudo math to show it: $$ I^2 = \int e^-x^2 dx \times \int e^-x^2 dx = Area \times Area = Area^2$$ We can replace one x, with a dummy variable, move the …

Feb 4, 2014 · it seems obvious that this integral is zero and so is the limit but what theorem we are using here? I see it's connected to Riemann sums with an interval=zero Right ? The function $\\mathrm{f}$ is

Feb 17, 2025 · The noun phrase "improper integral" written as $$ \int_a^\infty f (x) \, dx $$ is well defined. If the appropriate limit exists, we attach the property "convergent" to that expression and use …

Sep 27, 2013 · My HW asks me to integrate $\sin (x)$, $\cos (x)$, $\tan (x)$, but when I get to $\sec (x)$, I'm stuck.

The integral which you describe has no closed form which is to say that it cannot be expressed in elementary functions. For example, you can express $\int x^2 \mathrm {d}x$ in elementary functions …

Definite integrals of that function are found by numerical methods rather than by finding a closed-form antiderivative. In exercises of this kind usually one gets the value of the integral either from software …

Nov 29, 2013 · Wolfram Mathworld says that an indefinite integral is "also called an antiderivative". This MIT page says, "The more common name for the antiderivative is the indefinite integral." One is free …

Integral of Sinc Function Squared Over The Real Line [duplicate] Ask Question Asked 11 years, 4 months ago Modified 11 years, 3 months ago